I keep coming across interesting questions and answers. This particular question has two possible answers. In light of the context, which one makes the most sense? (Perhaps neither?)
For the unbelieving husband is sanctified through his wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified through her believing husband; for otherwise your children are unclean, but now they are holy (1 Cor 7:14).
Question: "Sanctified means 'made holy,' 'set aside,' and 'saved,' right? So is 1 Corinthians 7:14 saying an unbeliever married to a believer is saved because they are 'one flesh' in God's eyes?"
First Answer: "The word 'sanctified' often refers to salvation (Acts 20:32; 1 Cor 6:11), but sometimes it just means to be set apart to God (Ex 13:2; 19:14; 1 Sam 16:5; 2 Tim 2:21, etc.), and it has this meaning in 1 Cor 7:14 as well. Paul is saying that an unbelieving spouse, and their children, are much more likely to come to Christ than those with less exposure to the gospel and a consistent Christian testimony.
Most of the time when we quote Acts 16:31, we don't quote the end:
...Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household.
This too sounds like salvation by proxy, but as we read on we see the Philippian jailer 'rejoiced greatly, having believed in God with his whole household' (Acts 16:34). Here we see that the salvation of the man's family was predicated on them believing the gospel as well. Paul was simply saying, 'Believe and be saved, and this goes for your household as well!' As the Lord told Paul elsewhere, when it comes to salvation, only those 'who have been sanctified by faith in Me'...'may receive forgiveness of sins...' (Acts 26:18)."
Second Answer: "Under the Law (Ezra 10:3) the heathen wife and her children were ceremonially 'unclean,' and, therefore, ejected from the earthly family of God. But Paul is saying that under grace this is not so. Had Israel's repentance permitted the establishment of the Messianic Kingdom on earth, the believing husband could have brought in his heathen wife and their children. They would not have been treated as 'unclean.'"
For the unbelieving husband is sanctified through his wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified through her believing husband; for otherwise your children are unclean, but now they are holy (1 Cor 7:14).
Question: "Sanctified means 'made holy,' 'set aside,' and 'saved,' right? So is 1 Corinthians 7:14 saying an unbeliever married to a believer is saved because they are 'one flesh' in God's eyes?"
First Answer: "The word 'sanctified' often refers to salvation (Acts 20:32; 1 Cor 6:11), but sometimes it just means to be set apart to God (Ex 13:2; 19:14; 1 Sam 16:5; 2 Tim 2:21, etc.), and it has this meaning in 1 Cor 7:14 as well. Paul is saying that an unbelieving spouse, and their children, are much more likely to come to Christ than those with less exposure to the gospel and a consistent Christian testimony.
Most of the time when we quote Acts 16:31, we don't quote the end:
...Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household.
This too sounds like salvation by proxy, but as we read on we see the Philippian jailer 'rejoiced greatly, having believed in God with his whole household' (Acts 16:34). Here we see that the salvation of the man's family was predicated on them believing the gospel as well. Paul was simply saying, 'Believe and be saved, and this goes for your household as well!' As the Lord told Paul elsewhere, when it comes to salvation, only those 'who have been sanctified by faith in Me'...'may receive forgiveness of sins...' (Acts 26:18)."
Second Answer: "Under the Law (Ezra 10:3) the heathen wife and her children were ceremonially 'unclean,' and, therefore, ejected from the earthly family of God. But Paul is saying that under grace this is not so. Had Israel's repentance permitted the establishment of the Messianic Kingdom on earth, the believing husband could have brought in his heathen wife and their children. They would not have been treated as 'unclean.'"
The first answer does have a lot of truth in it, but in light of the context (1 Corinthians 7 is right in the middle of the transitional period) I think the second answer makes more sense. There may, however, be an even better answer that the Holy Spirit hasn't made clear to me yet, so I'll just keep praying and studying.
ReplyDeleteI seriously love your blog! You always give me something to think about.
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