Clearly God used dreams to communicate with man all through the OT. He communicated information through dreams (Gen. 20:3; 31:10-13, 24; Num 12:5-6), sent Jacob the dream of the ascending and descending angels on the ladder (Gen. 28:10-15), and also gave King Nebuchadnezzar of Babylon important dreams about the coming empires of human history. Daniel interpreted those dreams and the rest is—well, history (Dan 1:17; 2; 7).
But were all dreams communication from God? Ecclesiastes would indicate not - "For the dream comes through much effort and the voice of a fool through many words" (Eccl 5:3) and "For in many dreams and in many words there is emptiness" (Eccl 5:7).
It is interesting to note that in the ancient near east, dreams were seen as very important to both Jew and Gentile alike. For example, in Egypt there was a class of professional dream interpreters whose job it was to explain people's dreams. A rather lengthy dream interpretation textbook from ancient Egypt has even been unearthed that lists various things dreamt and their appropriate meanings. The part of the Jewish Talmud written during the Babylonian captivity is also full of dream interpretations and ways of dealing with them. Is all this what Eccl 5:3, 7 is referring to?
We also see God communicating to man through dreams in the early part of the NT (Matt 1:20; 2:12-13, 19, 22). The last dream recorded in the Bible is found at the end of Matthew where Pilot’s wife warns him to leave Jesus alone:
While he was sitting on the judgment seat, his wife sent him a message, saying, "Have nothing to do with that righteous Man; for last night I suffered greatly in a dream because of Him” (Matt 27:19).
Whether this was of God or her uneasy conscience is unclear.
Dreams are mentioned two more times in the NT (though not about specific dreams experienced); one is regarding a prophesy that included dreams (Acts 2:17), and the other speaks of false dreams (Jude 1:8). In all, dreams are spoken of about 121 times in the Bible.
I wasn't really sure what I'd find when I started researching this topic. But I must say I was quite surprised to find so many books and on-line sites devoted to the subject of dreams. I was equally surprised at how passionate people are about whether or not dreams can be communication from God today. I will discuss three of the main beliefs I came across, though there are many variations of these three beliefs as well.
First of all, some question whether dreams were ever communication from God. A couple of the authors I've read recently on the subject of dreams in ancient Babylon have concluded that since Babylonian tablets older than Biblical texts have been found, it is obvious that the Hebrews merely copied from the cultures around them, and that God didn’t really communicate through dreams at all — it was only in the Israelites’ heads. Interestingly, these authorities do see that the Israelites never needed interpreters to explain their dreams; the meaning was always obvious to them. And they (like Joseph and Daniel) even interpreted dreams for foreigners. But none of this is attributed to God either. Instead they credit the “undeniable religious genius of the Hebrews” that obviously included “a greater and more popular exercise of psychic qualities than characterized the other people of the Bible World." These same authorities also claim that since the Babylonians had creation and flood epic myths that preceded the writing of Genesis by about two to three thousand years, it is certain these were taken by the early Israelites while in Babylon as well. Why can’t these so-called intellectuals see that every society is descended from Noah and his three sons, and that all these “stories” came from them?! It goes without saying that those who hold this view do not believe God is communicating to any of us through dreams today.
A second opinion I came across is, that since God communicated through dreams in the past, there is no reason to think He is not still doing so today; especially since Peter’s quote of Joel 2:28 in Acts 2:17 indicates that the time when the Spirit is poured out has arrived. They are careful to say we need to be discerning in how we apply this truth today; that we must remember that the Bible is finished, having revealed everything we need to know from now until eternity. However, they still hold that any dream could be a communication from God, as long as the person having the dream is indwelt by the Holy Spirit, and as long as the dream does not conflict with Scripture.
And finally, the third view is, that although God communicated through dreams in the Bible, He no longer does so today because the canon of Scripture is now complete, meaning God does not have further things to reveal to nations or individuals that are not in the Bible. They further believe that the Bible is all sufficient in directing us in finding and carrying out the will of God for our lives without the need of a dream, that it is our new nature which enables us to understand the things of God, and that the Holy Spirit is our guide.
So what do you think?
I would have to agree with the third view. I certainly cannot countenance the first one, for it puts no stock in the inerrancy or literal interpretation of Scripture. As for the second opinion and its reference to Acts 2:17 as proof text, it seems to me that if there is anything the Book of Acts makes perfectly clear, it is the fact that a revolutionary change has taken place since Pentecost. And rather than showing us an exact pattern to follow, I believe Acts explains the transitional years. Additionally, when reading Joel 2:28, it is clear that this prophecy belongs to the Hebrew people, and that it still awaits its full completion. With this in mind and the fact that the canon of Scripture is complete, I believe that all communication from God is only through the Bible. And while the Spirit may provide comfort during a frightening dream, I don't think He "creates" or "sends" dreams or communicates any information apart from Scripture the dreamer already knows.
But were all dreams communication from God? Ecclesiastes would indicate not - "For the dream comes through much effort and the voice of a fool through many words" (Eccl 5:3) and "For in many dreams and in many words there is emptiness" (Eccl 5:7).
It is interesting to note that in the ancient near east, dreams were seen as very important to both Jew and Gentile alike. For example, in Egypt there was a class of professional dream interpreters whose job it was to explain people's dreams. A rather lengthy dream interpretation textbook from ancient Egypt has even been unearthed that lists various things dreamt and their appropriate meanings. The part of the Jewish Talmud written during the Babylonian captivity is also full of dream interpretations and ways of dealing with them. Is all this what Eccl 5:3, 7 is referring to?
We also see God communicating to man through dreams in the early part of the NT (Matt 1:20; 2:12-13, 19, 22). The last dream recorded in the Bible is found at the end of Matthew where Pilot’s wife warns him to leave Jesus alone:
While he was sitting on the judgment seat, his wife sent him a message, saying, "Have nothing to do with that righteous Man; for last night I suffered greatly in a dream because of Him” (Matt 27:19).
Whether this was of God or her uneasy conscience is unclear.
Dreams are mentioned two more times in the NT (though not about specific dreams experienced); one is regarding a prophesy that included dreams (Acts 2:17), and the other speaks of false dreams (Jude 1:8). In all, dreams are spoken of about 121 times in the Bible.
I wasn't really sure what I'd find when I started researching this topic. But I must say I was quite surprised to find so many books and on-line sites devoted to the subject of dreams. I was equally surprised at how passionate people are about whether or not dreams can be communication from God today. I will discuss three of the main beliefs I came across, though there are many variations of these three beliefs as well.
First of all, some question whether dreams were ever communication from God. A couple of the authors I've read recently on the subject of dreams in ancient Babylon have concluded that since Babylonian tablets older than Biblical texts have been found, it is obvious that the Hebrews merely copied from the cultures around them, and that God didn’t really communicate through dreams at all — it was only in the Israelites’ heads. Interestingly, these authorities do see that the Israelites never needed interpreters to explain their dreams; the meaning was always obvious to them. And they (like Joseph and Daniel) even interpreted dreams for foreigners. But none of this is attributed to God either. Instead they credit the “undeniable religious genius of the Hebrews” that obviously included “a greater and more popular exercise of psychic qualities than characterized the other people of the Bible World." These same authorities also claim that since the Babylonians had creation and flood epic myths that preceded the writing of Genesis by about two to three thousand years, it is certain these were taken by the early Israelites while in Babylon as well. Why can’t these so-called intellectuals see that every society is descended from Noah and his three sons, and that all these “stories” came from them?! It goes without saying that those who hold this view do not believe God is communicating to any of us through dreams today.
A second opinion I came across is, that since God communicated through dreams in the past, there is no reason to think He is not still doing so today; especially since Peter’s quote of Joel 2:28 in Acts 2:17 indicates that the time when the Spirit is poured out has arrived. They are careful to say we need to be discerning in how we apply this truth today; that we must remember that the Bible is finished, having revealed everything we need to know from now until eternity. However, they still hold that any dream could be a communication from God, as long as the person having the dream is indwelt by the Holy Spirit, and as long as the dream does not conflict with Scripture.
And finally, the third view is, that although God communicated through dreams in the Bible, He no longer does so today because the canon of Scripture is now complete, meaning God does not have further things to reveal to nations or individuals that are not in the Bible. They further believe that the Bible is all sufficient in directing us in finding and carrying out the will of God for our lives without the need of a dream, that it is our new nature which enables us to understand the things of God, and that the Holy Spirit is our guide.
So what do you think?
I would have to agree with the third view. I certainly cannot countenance the first one, for it puts no stock in the inerrancy or literal interpretation of Scripture. As for the second opinion and its reference to Acts 2:17 as proof text, it seems to me that if there is anything the Book of Acts makes perfectly clear, it is the fact that a revolutionary change has taken place since Pentecost. And rather than showing us an exact pattern to follow, I believe Acts explains the transitional years. Additionally, when reading Joel 2:28, it is clear that this prophecy belongs to the Hebrew people, and that it still awaits its full completion. With this in mind and the fact that the canon of Scripture is complete, I believe that all communication from God is only through the Bible. And while the Spirit may provide comfort during a frightening dream, I don't think He "creates" or "sends" dreams or communicates any information apart from Scripture the dreamer already knows.
I am so moved by this post, and all the considerations, and so much to think about. You should write a book, you write about such a deep, interesting topic, so clearly. I would love to read more and more. Thank you for sharing.
ReplyDeleteThank you, Celeste. I was feeling a bit apprehensive, thinking that maybe I'm being too technical and dry. I appreciate your kind and encouraging comment more than you know.
ReplyDelete